On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Economic power is the only reason for the existence of inequality in a society.
2. Inequality of different kinds, income, wealth, etc. reinforces power.
3. Economic power can be analysed more through its effects than by direct empirical methods.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

Correct Option: 3 only

Assumption 1 claims that economic power is the *only* reason for the existence of inequality in a society. The passage states that power is the organizing principle of inequality (income, wealth, gender, race, religion, region), but using the restrictive word 'only' makes the assumption extreme and unsupported. Assumption 2 states that inequality of different kinds reinforces power. The passage notes that power drives inequality and its effects are pervasive, but it does not state that inequality in turn reinforces power. Assumption 3 states that economic power can be analysed more through its effects than by direct empirical methods. This is directly validated by the passage statement: 'its effects are seen in a pervasive manner... but the ways in which economic power pulls and tilts visible economic variables remain invisibly obscure', implying we study it via its observable effects rather than direct measurement. Hence, only assumption 3 is valid.